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Is kjv and septuagint the same
Is kjv and septuagint the same







  1. #IS KJV AND SEPTUAGINT THE SAME FULL#
  2. #IS KJV AND SEPTUAGINT THE SAME SERIES#

Lastly, (but certainly not the last of the NT evidence), one of my favorite LXX quotations. Easy to see how the exact Greek wording is maintained. Similar idea with Gomorrha and Sodoma, the terms are transposed. This is an example where the Hebrew is transliterated into Greek "Sabaoth" and is quoted by the NT as such. What about a more complicated example in quotation? Romans 9:29, " Except the Lord of Sabaoth had left us a seed, we had been as Sodoma, and been made like unto Gomorrha." Take note of the three terms: Sabaoth, Sodom, and Gomorrha.

#IS KJV AND SEPTUAGINT THE SAME FULL#

Or another from Romans 3:14, " whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness." This is quoted from Psalm 10:7 and is another verbatim example. The LXX reflects this exact Greek sentence verbatim. This should make it simple to recognize.Ĭonsider Romans 3:13b, " the poison of asps is under their lips." This is quoted from Psalm 140:3. Many times the NT quotes the LXX verbatim. So how could Paul quote from the Hebrew text that did not exist? Obvious, he quoted from the LXX. The LXX contains this wording and the Hebrew text does not.

is kjv and septuagint the same

If you will note (even in your English KJV text) the NT prepositional phrase, "among the Gentiles" does not appear. Romans 2:24 quotes from the LXX, " for the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles." This comes from Isaiah 52:5. Here for example the Hebrew text best represents the preposition, whereas the LXX does not. Romans 1:17 quotes from the Hebrew, " the just shall live by his faith." As far as I can tell, the Hebrew text in Habakkuk 2:4 uses a preposition translated with the English gloss "by" that more correctly reflects the text quoted in Romans 1:17. Second, the NT quotation might be verbatim word order for the LXX (this as well could be said for verbatim quotes from the Hebrew text). This position could also be reversed, the Hebrew text might have a wording which the LXX does not contain.

is kjv and septuagint the same

So what evidence do we look for to determine this quotation source? Well, the verse quoted may contain words only found in the LXX (not in the Hebrew text). So its certainly not the normal mode of operation when scripture was penned. In all the NT, the LXX only makes up for about 20% of the quotations. If I counted correctly (you're welcome to count on your own), Romans contains 63 OT quotations (22 from the LXX, and 41 from the Masoretic text). But to be fair this same process could be repeated in any of the NT gospels or epistles quoting from the LXX. Just for sake of time (don't forget there are roughly 350 OT quotations) in the NT, we'll limit our discussion to the epistle of Romans. So this is obviously something they are not ashamed of or threatened by in being academically honest. At the same time they acknowledge the existence of the LXX and their notes on occasion point out the fact that the NT verses are quoting from the Septuagint and not the underlying Hebrew text. For example, the very study Bible I use every day for reading, study and memorizing was published by a company that is strongly KJV in their position (both underlying Greek and Hebrew texts also). It must be said (to be academically honest) not all adherents who believe God preserved the underlying Traditional Greek Texts deny the existence of the Septuagint. Just by way of reminder many of the KJV only advocates who actually use the Greek and Hebrew texts deny the existence of the Septuagint.

is kjv and septuagint the same

This position seems to foster a following in churches where academics are discouraged and local church pastors just don't address this issue (exegetically or historically). This position is even farther from the historic position of Christianity for both inspiration and preservation. Their position is an English text only position. Of course, it goes without saying the KJV English only position has no value for the underlying Hebrew and Greek text and won't be bothered by this position anyway. This would also extend to include Christ's own quotation of the OT. This includes writers such as the Matthew, Luke, Paul, etc.

is kjv and septuagint the same

It is this OT text that the NT writers and speakers quote. Here's the issue many (if not most) of the KJV only adherents believe that God providentially preserved the Hebrew manuscripts underlying the Old Testament. At face value this might not make sense to the normal reader. This line of defense is focused toward KJV only advocates who at least attempt an academic position based on the underlying Greek and Hebrew text. One of the tenants of the KJV English Translation only position is the non-existence of the Greek translation of the OT (the Septuagint "LXX").

#IS KJV AND SEPTUAGINT THE SAME SERIES#

Series Part One Series Part Two Series Part Three Septuagint Quotations in New Testament and the KJV 1611 Hebrew Old Testament Position









Is kjv and septuagint the same